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TSwift25

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Correct me if I'm wrong, but shouldn't the Braves have forfeited the game in the 9th inning?

I was under the impression that in the event of a rain delay, if the field is not in reasonable playing condition, or to the satisfaction of the players or umpires, that the home team forfeits.

Clearly, the mound was not satisfactory for Wickman and there was an inordinate amount of time, and work, done to bring it to "playable" conditions.

I know that the Mets petitioned for a game like this in Washington a year, maybe two, past.
 

FlummoxedLummox

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I would imagine that the ground crew would have an opportunity to correct the issue prior to the home team forfeiting.
 

FreshFish

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why would the Braves forfeit the game with the lead on the 9th inning?
 

louiecastillo1

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I would imagine that the ground crew would have an opportunity to correct the issue prior to the home team forfeiting.

I would imagine that fatass would just sink it in by stepping on it.
 

TSwift25

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why would the Braves forfeit the game with the lead on the 9th inning?

Because it's a technicality.

I'm not saying we should have won, but I'm 99% sure there's this loophole, and clearly the Braves demonstrated that they themselves were not satisfied with the field of play following the rain.
 

Out of the Past

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I didn't watch so maybe I'm missing something. I guess it rained and after the rain delay there was a problem with the mound. The grounds crew fixed the problem. Why would the Braves forfeit? What am I missing?
 

PSN

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even if its a rule, I've never heard of it being applied in any game
 

pierremvp1

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Swifty.....I think that you're right about the rule. But for it to apply, it would have to be a case where the umpires felt the weather was clear, and the grounds crew made every attempt to get the field playable, and the umps felt they failed. Then the home team forfeits. In this case, the groundscrew was successful in the repair, or, if they were not Wickman didn't say anything.
 

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